Question # 1
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege? | A. Integrity | B. Availability | C. Confidentiality | D. Non-repudiation |
C. Confidentiality
Explanation: Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non- repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
Question # 2
Which of the following types of identification methods can be performed on a deployed application during runtime? | A. Dynamic analysis | B. Code review | C. Package monitoring | D. Bug bounty |
A. Dynamic analysis
Explanation: Dynamic analysis is performed on software during execution to identify vulnerabilities based on how the software behaves in real-world scenarios. It is useful in detecting security issues that only appear when the application is running.
Question # 3
Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software? | A. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks. | B. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network. | C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures. | D. Install endpoint management software on all systems. |
D. Install endpoint management software on all systems.
Explanation: Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to
monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1
Question # 4
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following should the analyst do? | A. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities. | B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered | C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs. | D. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts. |
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
Explanation: An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.
Question # 5
A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access? | A. EAP | B. DHCP | C. IPSec | D. NAT |
C. IPSec
Explanation: IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0- 701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 385 1
Question # 6
Which of the following is the best way to secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider? | A. Bollards | B. Access badge | C. Motion sensor | D. Video surveillance |
B. Access badge
Explanation: To secure an on-site data center against intrusion from an insider, the best measure is to use an access badge system. Access badges control who can enter restricted areas by verifying their identity and permissions, thereby preventing unauthorized access from insiders.
Access badge: Provides controlled and monitored access to restricted areas, ensuring that only authorized personnel can enter.
Bollards: Provide physical barriers to prevent vehicle access but do not prevent unauthorized personnel entry.
Motion sensor: Detects movement but does not control or restrict access.
Video surveillance: Monitors and records activity but does not physically prevent intrusion.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts (Physical security controls).
Question # 7
A security administrator is configuring fileshares. The administrator removed the default permissions and added permissions for only users who will need to access the fileshares as part of their job duties. Which of the following best describes why the administrator performed these actions? | A. Encryption standard compliance | B. Data replication requirements | C. Least privilege | D. Access control monitoring |
C. Least privilege
Explanation: The security administrator's actions of removing default permissions and adding permissions only for users who need access as part of their job duties best describe the principle of least privilege. This principle ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary access to perform their job functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary for their job duties, enhancing security by reducing potential attack surfaces. Encryption standard compliance: Involves meeting encryption requirements, but it does not explain the removal and assignment of specific permissions.
Data replication requirements: Focus on duplicating data across different systems for redundancy and availability, not related to user permissions.
Access control monitoring: Involves tracking and reviewing access to resources, but the scenario is about setting permissions, not monitoring them.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.5 - Modify enterprise capabilities to enhance security (Least privilege).
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What types of jobs can I pursue with a CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification?
The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification opens doors to various roles, such as Security Analyst, Systems Administrator, Network Administrator, and Security Consultant, among others in the IT security field.
How does the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification enhance my career prospects?
This certification demonstrates your foundational cybersecurity knowledge, making you a more attractive candidate for IT security roles and potentially leading to higher salary offers and advancement opportunities.
Are there any specific industries that value the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification more?
While valuable across various sectors, the CompTIA Security+ certification is particularly recognized in government, finance, healthcare, and technology industries, where data security is a critical concern.
Can the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification help me get a job in government cybersecurity?
Yes, the CompTIA Security+ certification is often a requirement for many government cybersecurity roles, especially in departments that require staff to handle sensitive information.
What is the average salary for jobs requiring a CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification?
Salaries vary based on location, experience, and the specific job role, but generally, roles requiring this certification offer competitive salaries in the IT security sector.
How long does the value of the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification last in terms of career growth?
The CompTIA Security+ certification is valid for three years, but its value in enhancing your career can last much longer, especially when combined with ongoing education and work experience.
Does the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification require any continuing education to maintain its validity?
To maintain the certification, CompTIA requires 50 Continuing
Education Units (CEUs) every three years, which ensures that your skills
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What are the major differences between the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 and SY0-701 exams?
Aspect |
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 |
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 |
Content Focus |
Balanced coverage of security concepts, risk management, and network security, among others. |
Enhanced focus on practical skills, hands-on experience, and newer topics like hybrid/cloud operations and security. |
Exam Format |
Mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions. |
Similar format with more scenario-based questions for practical skills assessment. |
New Topics |
Covers the fundamentals of cybersecurity as of its release. |
Includes advanced threat protection, incident response, and the latest best practices in risk management and mitigation. |
Difficulty Level |
Designed to meet the cybersecurity challenges at the time of its release. |
Potentially more challenging, with an emphasis on practical, real-world scenarios and current complexities in cybersecurity. |
Industry Relevance |
Relevant to the cybersecurity landscape during its validity period. |
More aligned with current and emerging trends in the cybersecurity landscape, especially in cloud and IoT security. |
Study Material Relevance |
Study materials specifically for SY0-601 are necessary. |
Requires updated study materials that cover the new topics and revised content areas of SY0-701. |
Target Audience |
Aimed at professionals seeking foundational cybersecurity knowledge. |
Targeted at those looking to stay current with the evolving field and acquire hands-on skills. |
What topics are covered in the SY0-701 Exam?
Key topics include threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities; technologies and tools; architecture and design; identity and access management; risk management; and cryptography and PKI.
Are there any prerequisites for taking the Security+ SY0-701 Exam?
While there are no formal prerequisites, it is recommended to have foundational knowledge in IT security and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus.
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