Question # 1
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
| A. Securing data transfer between hospitals
| B. Providing for non-repudiation data
| C. Reducing liability from identity theft
| D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
|
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.
HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.
"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.
Question # 2
A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the number of failed patch deployments?
| A. Compliance tracking
| B. Situational awareness
| C. Change management
| D. Quality assurance
|
C. Change management
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable manner.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch deployments.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best practices for change management in IT services.
"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system stability and reliability.
Question # 3
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
| A. SASE
| B. CMDB
| C. SBoM
| D. SLM
|
B. CMDB
Explanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.
"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.
Question # 4
A company detects suspicious activity associated with external connections Security detection tools are unable to categorize this activity. Which of the following is the best solution to help the company overcome this challenge? | | A. Implement an
Interactive honeypot | | B. Map network traffic
to known loCs | | C. Monitor the dark web | | D. implement UEBA |
D. implement UEBA
User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) is the best solution to help the company overcome challenges associated with suspicious activity that cannot be categorized by traditional detection tools. UEBA uses advanced analytics to establish baselines of normal
Question # 5
Users must accept the terms presented in a captive petal when connecting to a guest network. Recently, users have reported that they are unable to access the Internet after joining the network A network engineer observes the following:
• Users should be redirected to the captive portal. • The Motive portal runs Tl. S 1 2 • Newer browser versions encounter security errors that cannot be bypassed • Certain websites cause unexpected re directs Which of the following mow likely explains this behavior? | | A. The TLS ciphers
supported by the captive portal ate deprecated | | B. Employment of the
HSTS setting is proliferating rapidly. | | C. Allowed traffic rules
are causing the NIPS to drop legitimate traffic | | D. An attacker is
redirecting supplicants to an evil twin WLAN. |
A. The TLS ciphers
supported by the captive portal ate deprecated
The most likely explanation for the issues encountered with the captive portal is that the TLS ciphers supported by the captive portal are deprecated. Here’s why: TLS Cipher Suites: Modern browsers are continuously updated to support the latest security standards and often drop support for deprecated and insecure cipher suites. If the captive portal uses outdated TLS ciphers, newer browsers may refuse to connect, causing security errors. HSTS and Browser Security: Browsers with HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) enabled will not allow connections to sites with weak security configurations. Deprecated TLS ciphers would cause these browsers to block the connection. References: By updating the TLS ciphers to modern, supported ones, the security engineer can ensure compatibility with newer browser versions and resolve the connectivity issues reported by users.
Question # 6
A company wants to install a three-tier approach to separate the web. database, and application servers A security administrator must harden the environment which of the following is the best solution? | | A. Deploying a VPN to
prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs | | B. Configuring a SASb
solution to restrict users to server communication | | C. Implementing
microsegmentation on the server VLANs | | D. installing a firewall
and making it the network core |
C. Implementing
microsegmentation on the server VLANs
The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here’s why: Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to one part of the network. Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment, reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks. Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected. References:
Question # 7
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced' | | A. The HSM is outdated
and no longer supported by the manufacturer | | B. The vTPM was not
properly initialized and is corrupt. | | C. The HSM is vulnerable
to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed | | D. The motherboard was
not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier | | E. The HSM does not
support sealing storage |
D. The motherboard was
not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier. Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption: Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption. Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed. Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with. Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption: A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption. B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement. C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device. E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation "BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation
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