Question # 1
A systems engineer is configuring a system baseline for servers that will provide email
services. As part of the architecture design, the engineer needs to improve performance of
the systems by using an access vector cache, facilitating mandatory access control and
protecting against:
• Unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs
• Bypassing application security mechanisms
• Privilege escalation
• interference with other processes
Which of the following is the most appropriate for the engineer to deploy?
| | A. SELinux | | B. Privileged access management | | C. Self-encrypting disks | | D. NIPS
|
A. SELinux
Explanation:
The most appropriate solution for the systems engineer to deploy is SELinux (SecurityEnhanced Linux). Here's why:
Mandatory Access Control (MAC): SELinux enforces MAC policies, ensuring that
only authorized users and processes can access specific resources. This helps in
preventing unauthorized reading and modification of data and programs.
Access Vector Cache: SELinux utilizes an access vector cache (AVC) to improve
performance. The AVC caches access decisions, reducing the need for repetitive
policy lookups and thus improving system efficiency.
Security Mechanisms: SELinux provides a robust framework to enforce security
policies and prevent bypassing of application security mechanisms. It controls
access based on defined policies, ensuring that security measures are consistently
applied.
Privilege Escalation and Process Interference: SELinux limits the ability of
processes to escalate privileges and interfere with each other by enforcing strict
access controls. This containment helps in isolating processes and minimizing the
risk of privilege escalation attacks.
Question # 2
| Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills
by encrypting patient data at rest? | | A. Securing data transfer between hospitals | | B. Providing for non-repudiation data | | C. Reducing liability from identity theft
| | D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability. |
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure
compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of
patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at
rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized
access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised.
Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure
transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy
controls are in place.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption
for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory
requirements.
HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards,
including encryption, to protect patient data.
"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology
Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for
protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.
Question # 3
| A security team is responding to malicious activity and needs to determine the scope of
impact the malicious activity appears to affect certain version of an application used by the
organization Which of the following actions best enables the team to determine the scope
of Impact?
| | A. Performing a port scan | | B. Inspecting egress network traffic | | C. Reviewing the asset inventory | | D. Analyzing user behavior
|
C. Reviewing the asset inventory
Explanation:
Reviewing the asset inventory allows the security team to identify all
instances of the affected application versions within the organization. By knowing which
systems are running the vulnerable versions, the team can assess the full scope of the
impact, determine which systems might be compromised, and prioritize them for further
investigation and remediation.
Performing a port scan (Option A) might help identify open ports but does not provide
specific information about the application versions. Inspecting egress network traffic
(Option B) and analyzing user behavior (Option D) are important steps in the incident
response process but do not directly identify which versions of the application are affected.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
NIST SP 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
CIS Controls, "Control 1: Inventory and Control of Hardware Assets" and "Control
2: Inventory and Control of Software Assets"
Question # 4
An audit finding reveals that a legacy platform has not retained loos for more than 30 days The platform has been segmented due to its interoperability with newer technology. As a temporary solution, the IT department changed the log retention to 120 days. Which of the following should the security engineer do to ensure the logs are being properly retained? | | A. Configure a scheduled
task nightly to save the logs | | B. Configure event-based
triggers to export the logs at a threshold. | | C. Configure the SIEM to
aggregate the logs | | D. Configure a Python
script to move the logs into a SQL database. |
C. Configure the SIEM to
aggregate the logs
To ensure that logs from a legacy platform are properly retained beyond the default retention period, configuring the SIEM to aggregate the logs is the best approach. SIEM solutions are designed to collect, aggregate, and store logs from various sources, providing centralized log management and retention. This setup ensures that logs are retained according to policy and can be easily accessed for analysis and compliance purposes. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of SIEM in log management and retention. NIST Special Publication 800-92, "Guide to Computer Security Log Management": Recommends the use of centralized log management solutions, such as SIEM, for effective log retention and analysis. "Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) Implementation" by David Miller: Covers best practices for configuring SIEM systems to aggregate and retain logs from various sources.
Question # 5
Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills by encrypting patient data at rest?
| A. Securing data transfer between hospitals
| B. Providing for non-repudiation data
| C. Reducing liability from identity theft
| D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
|
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised. Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy controls are in place.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements.
HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards, including encryption, to protect patient data.
"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.
Question # 6
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack
detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about
the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
| | A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives | | B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host | | C. Set network behavior analysis rules | | D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis |
D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears
to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might
have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can
potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious
actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to
prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here’s why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it
from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to
protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed
to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or
systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into
the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might
execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine
ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the
scanner’s configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the
compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate
actions in this scenario:
A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives:
This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat
posed by the compromised scanner.
B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is
preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the
scanner is already compromised.
C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and
detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised
scanner’s activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt
any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature
of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for
further remediation efforts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling
Guide"
Question # 7
| A systems administrator wants to introduce a newly released feature for an internal
application. The administrate docs not want to test the feature in the production
environment. Which of the following locations is the best place to test the new feature? | | A. Staging environment | | B. Testing environment
| | C. CI/CO pipeline | | D. Development environment |
A. Staging environment
Explanation:
The best location to test a newly released feature for an internal application,
without affecting the production environment, is the staging environment. Here’s a detailed
explanation:
Staging Environment: This environment closely mirrors the production environment
in terms of hardware, software, configurations, and settings. It serves as a final
testing ground before deploying changes to production. Testing in the staging
environment ensures that the new feature will behave as expected in the actual
production setup.
Isolation from Production: The staging environment is isolated from production,
which means any issues arising from the new feature will not impact the live users
or the integrity of the production data. This aligns with best practices in change
management and risk mitigation.
Realistic Testing: Since the staging environment replicates the production
environment, it provides realistic testing conditions. This helps in identifying
potential issues that might not be apparent in a development or testing
environment, which often have different configurations and workloads.
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