Question # 1
| Which of the following best explains the business requirement a healthcare provider fulfills
by encrypting patient data at rest? | | A. Securing data transfer between hospitals | | B. Providing for non-repudiation data | | C. Reducing liability from identity theft
| | D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability. |
D. Protecting privacy while supporting portability.
Explanation:
Encrypting patient data at rest is a critical requirement for healthcare providers to ensure
compliance with regulations such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
(HIPAA). The primary business requirement fulfilled by this practice is the protection of
patient privacy while supporting the portability of medical information. By encrypting data at
rest, healthcare providers safeguard sensitive patient information from unauthorized
access, ensuring that privacy is maintained even if the storage media are compromised.
Additionally, encryption supports the portability of patient records, allowing for secure
transfer and access across different systems and locations while ensuring that privacy
controls are in place.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of data encryption
for protecting sensitive information and ensuring compliance with regulatory
requirements.
HIPAA Security Rule: Requires healthcare providers to implement safeguards,
including encryption, to protect patient data.
"Health Informatics: Practical Guide for Healthcare and Information Technology
Professionals" by Robert E. Hoyt: Discusses encryption as a key measure for
protecting patient data privacy and supporting data portability.
Question # 2
| A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an
organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or
applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the
number of failed patch deployments?
| | A. Compliance tracking | | B. Situational awareness | | C. Change management | | D. Quality assurance |
C. Change management
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should
implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all
modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before
deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can
cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable
manner.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change
management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch
deployments.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best
practices for change management in IT services.
"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses
the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system
stability and reliability.
Question # 3
Which of the following AI concerns is most adequately addressed by input sanitation?
| A. Model inversion
| B. Prompt Injection
| C. Data poisoning
| D. Non-explainable model
|
B. Prompt Injection
Explanation:
Input sanitation is a critical process in cybersecurity that involves validating and cleaning data provided by users to prevent malicious inputs from causing harm. In the context of AI concerns:
A. Model inversion involves an attacker inferring sensitive data from model outputs, typically requiring sophisticated methods beyond just manipulating input data.
B. Prompt Injection is a form of attack where an adversary provides malicious input to manipulate the behavior of AI models, particularly those dealing with natural language processing (NLP). Input sanitation directly addresses this by ensuring that inputs are cleaned and validated to remove potentially harmful commands or instructions that could alter the AI's behavior.
C. Data poisoning involves injecting malicious data into the training set to compromise the model. While input sanitation can help by filtering out bad data, data poisoning is typically addressed through robust data validation and monitoring during the model training phase, rather than real-time input sanitation.
D. Non-explainable model refers to the lack of transparency in how AI models make decisions. This concern is not addressed by input sanitation, as it relates more to model design and interpretability techniques.
Input sanitation is most relevant and effective for preventing Prompt Injection attacks, where the integrity of user inputs directly impacts the performance and security of AI models.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Security of Machine Learning" by Battista Biggio, Blaine Nelson, and Pavel Laskov
OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) guidelines on input validation and injection
attacks
Top of Form
Bottom of Form
Question # 4
| A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to
share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner
organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a
variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to
facilitate this activity? (Select two).
| | A. CWPP | | B. YAKA | | C. ATTACK | | D. STIX | | E. TAXII |
D. STIX
E. TAXII
Explanation:
D. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized
language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable
format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is
consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a
transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a
secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the
exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud
workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
B. YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but
it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C. ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but
does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F. JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not
related to threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing" by MITRE
NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question # 5
| A systems administrator wants to use existing resources to automate reporting from
disparate security appliances that do not currently communicate. Which of the following is
the best way to meet this objective? | | A. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets | | B. Combining back-end application storage into a single, relational database | | C. Purchasing and deploying commercial off the shelf aggregation software | | D. Migrating application usage logs to on-premises storage |
A. Configuring an API Integration to aggregate the different data sets
Explanation:
The best way to automate reporting from disparate security appliances that
do not currently communicate is to configure an API Integration to aggregate the different
data sets. Here's why:
Interoperability: APIs allow different systems to communicate and share data, even
if they were not originally designed to work together. This enables the integration
of various security appliances into a unified reporting system.
Automation: API integrations can automate the process of data collection,
aggregation, and reporting, reducing manual effort and increasing efficiency.
Scalability: APIs provide a scalable solution that can easily be extended to include
additional security appliances or data sources as needed.
Question # 6
| A company wants to use loT devices to manage and monitor thermostats at all facilities
The thermostats must receive vendor security updates and limit access to other devices
within the organization Which of the following best addresses the company's requirements''
| | A. Only allowing Internet access to a set of specific domains
| | B. Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally | | C. Only allowing operation for loT devices during a specified time window | | D. Configuring IoT devices to always allow automatic updates |
B. Operating lot devices on a separate network with no access to other devices internally
Explanation:
The best approach for managing and monitoring IoT devices, such as
thermostats, is to operate them on a separate network with no access to other internal
devices. This segmentation ensures that the IoT devices are isolated from the main
network, reducing the risk of potential security breaches affecting other critical systems.
Additionally, this setup allows for secure vendor updates without exposing the broader
network to potential vulnerabilities inherent in IoT devices.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Recommends network segmentation for IoT
devices to minimize security risks.
NIST Special Publication 800-183, "Network of Things": Advises on the isolation of
IoT devices to enhance security.
"Practical IoT Security" by Brian Russell and Drew Van Duren: Discusses best
practices for securing IoT devices, including network segmentation.
Question # 7
| A company is having issues with its vulnerability management program New devices/lPs
are added and dropped regularly, making the vulnerability report inconsistent Which of the
following actions should the company lake to most likely improve the vulnerability
management process'
| | A. Request a weekly report with all new assets deployed and decommissioned
| | B. Extend the DHCP lease lime to allow the devices to remain with the same address for a
longer period. | | C. Implement a shadow IT detection process to avoid rogue devices on the network | | D. Perform regular discovery scanning throughout the 11 landscape using the vulnerability
management tool
|
Explanation:
To improve the vulnerability management process in an environment where new
devices/IPs are added and dropped regularly, the company should perform regular
discovery scanning throughout the IT landscape using the vulnerability management tool.
Here’s why:
Accurate Asset Inventory: Regular discovery scans help maintain an up-to-date
inventory of all assets, ensuring that the vulnerability management process
includes all relevant devices and IPs.
Consistency in Reporting: By continuously discovering and scanning new and
existing assets, the company can generate consistent and comprehensive
vulnerability reports that reflect the current state of the network.
Proactive Management: Regular scans enable the organization to proactively
identify and address vulnerabilities on new and existing assets, reducing the
window of exposure to potential threats.
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