Question # 1
| A company wants to install a three-tier approach to separate the web. database, and
application servers A security administrator must harden the environment which of the
following is the best solution? | | A. Deploying a VPN to prevent remote locations from accessing server VLANs | | B. Configuring a SASb solution to restrict users to server communication | | C. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs | | D. installing a firewall and making it the network core |
C. Implementing microsegmentation on the server VLANs
Explanation:
The best solution to harden a three-tier environment (web, database, and
application servers) is to implement microsegmentation on the server VLANs. Here’s why:
Enhanced Security: Microsegmentation creates granular security zones within the
data center, allowing for more precise control over east-west traffic between
servers. This helps prevent lateral movement by attackers who may gain access to
one part of the network.
Isolation of Tiers: By segmenting the web, database, and application servers, the
organization can apply specific security policies and controls to each segment,
reducing the risk of cross-tier attacks.
Compliance and Best Practices: Microsegmentation aligns with best practices for
network security and helps meet compliance requirements by ensuring that
sensitive data and systems are properly isolated and protected.
Question # 2
| A compliance officer is reviewing the data sovereignty laws in several countries where the
organization has no presence Which of the following is the most likely reason for reviewing
these laws? | | A. The organization is performing due diligence of potential tax issues. | | B. The organization has been subject to legal proceedings in countries where it has a
presence.
| | C. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries | | D. The organization has suffered brand reputation damage from incorrect media coverage |
C. The organization is concerned with new regulatory enforcement in other countries
Explanation:
Reviewing data sovereignty laws in countries where the organization has no presence is
likely due to concerns about regulatory enforcement. Data sovereignty laws dictate how
data can be stored, processed, and transferred across borders. Understanding these laws
is crucial for compliance, especially if the organization handles data that may be subject to
foreign regulations.
Question # 3
| A software company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository
Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the
application Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts? | | A. Misconfigured code commit | | B. Unsecure bundled libraries | | C. Invalid code signing certificate | | D. Data leakage |
B. Unsecure bundled libraries
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure
bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for
developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security,
they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.
Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?
Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware
infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.
Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure,
leading to potential security risks.
Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries
are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.
Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:
A. Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger antimalware alerts.
C. Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically antimalware alerts.
D. Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to antimalware alerts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Securing Open Source Libraries," OWASP
"Managing Third-Party Software Security Risks," Gartner Research
Question # 4
| Emails that the marketing department is sending to customers are pomp to the customers'
spam folders. The security team is investigating the issue and discovers that the
certificates used by the email server were reissued, but DNS records had not been
updated. Which of the following should the security team update in order to fix this issue?
(Select three.) | | A. DMARC | | B. SPF | | C. DKIM | | D. DNSSEC | | E. SASC |
A. DMARC
B. SPF
C. DKIM
Explanation:
To prevent emails from being marked as spam, several DNS records related to email
authentication need to be properly configured and updated when there are changes to the
email server's certificates:
A. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance):
DMARC records help email servers determine how to handle messages that fail
SPF or DKIM checks, improving email deliverability and reducing the likelihood of
emails being marked as spam.
B. SPF (Sender Policy Framework): SPF records specify which mail servers are
authorized to send email on behalf of your domain. Updating the SPF record
ensures that the new email server is recognized as an authorized sender.
C. DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail): DKIM adds a digital signature to email
headers, allowing the receiving server to verify that the email has not been
tampered with and is from an authorized sender. Updating DKIM records ensures
that emails are properly signed and authenticated.
D. DNSSEC (Domain Name System Security Extensions): DNSSEC adds security
to DNS by enabling DNS responses to be verified. While important for DNS
security, it does not directly address the issue of emails being marked as spam.
E. SASC: This is not a relevant standard for this scenario.
F. SAN (Subject Alternative Name): SAN is used in SSL/TLS certificates for
securing multiple domain names, not for email delivery issues.
G. SOA (Start of Authority): SOA records are used for DNS zone administration
and do not directly impact email deliverability.
H. MX (Mail Exchange): MX records specify the mail servers responsible for
receiving email on behalf of a domain. While important, the primary issue here is
the authentication of outgoing emails, which is handled by SPF, DKIM, and
DMARC.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
RFC 7208 (SPF), RFC 6376 (DKIM), and RFC 7489 (DMARC)
NIST SP 800-45, "Guidelines on Electronic Mail Security"
Question # 5
| A financial technology firm works collaboratively with business partners in the industry to
share threat intelligence within a central platform This collaboration gives partner
organizations the ability to obtain and share data associated with emerging threats from a
variety of adversaries Which of the following should the organization most likely leverage to
facilitate this activity? (Select two).
| | A. CWPP | | B. YAKA | | C. ATTACK | | D. STIX | | E. TAXII |
D. STIX
E. TAXII
Explanation:
D. STIX (Structured Threat Information eXpression): STIX is a standardized
language for representing threat information in a structured and machine-readable
format. It facilitates the sharing of threat intelligence by ensuring that data is
consistent and can be easily understood by all parties involved.
E. TAXII (Trusted Automated eXchange of Indicator Information): TAXII is a
transport mechanism that enables the sharing of cyber threat information over a
secure and trusted network. It works in conjunction with STIX to automate the
exchange of threat intelligence among organizations.
Other options:
A. CWPP (Cloud Workload Protection Platform): This focuses on securing cloud
workloads and is not directly related to threat intelligence sharing.
B. YARA: YARA is used for malware research and identifying patterns in files, but
it is not a platform for sharing threat intelligence.
C. ATT&CK: This is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques but
does not facilitate the sharing of threat intelligence data.
F. JTAG: JTAG is a standard for testing and debugging integrated circuits, not
related to threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"STIX and TAXII: The Backbone of Threat Intelligence Sharing" by MITRE
NIST SP 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question # 6
| Which of the following best describes the challenges associated with widespread adoption
of homomorphic encryption techniques? | | A. Incomplete mathematical primitives | | B. No use cases to drive adoption | | C. Quantum computers not yet capable | | D. insufficient coprocessor support
|
D. insufficient coprocessor support
Explanation:
Homomorphic encryption allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without
decrypting it, providing strong privacy guarantees. However, the adoption of homomorphic
encryption is challenging due to several factors:
A. Incomplete mathematical primitives: This is not the primary barrier as the
theoretical foundations of homomorphic encryption are well-developed.
B. No use cases to drive adoption: There are several compelling use cases for
homomorphic encryption, especially in privacy-sensitive fields like healthcare and
finance.
C. Quantum computers not yet capable: Quantum computing is not directly related
to the challenges of adopting homomorphic encryption.
D. Insufficient coprocessor support: The computational overhead of homomorphic
encryption is significant, requiring substantial processing power. Current generalpurpose processors are not optimized for the intensive computations required by
homomorphic encryption, limiting its practical deployment. Specialized hardware or
coprocessors designed to handle these computations more efficiently are not yet
widely available.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
"Homomorphic Encryption: Applications and Challenges" by Rivest et al.
NIST, "Report on Post-Quantum Cryptography"
Question # 7
| A financial services organization is using Al lo fully automate the process of deciding client
loan rates Which of the following should the organization be most concerned about from a
privacy perspective?
| | A. Model explainability | | B. Credential Theft | | C. Possible prompt Injections
| | D. Exposure to social engineering |
A. Model explainability
Explanation:
When using AI to fully automate the process of deciding client loan rates, the primary
concern from a privacy perspective is model explainability.
Why Model Explainability is Critical:
Transparency: It ensures that the decision-making process of the AI model can be
understood and explained to stakeholders, including clients.
Accountability: Helps in identifying biases and errors in the model, ensuring that
the AI is making fair and unbiased decisions.
Regulatory Compliance: Various regulations require that decisions, especially
those affecting individuals' financial status, can be explained and justified.
Trust: Builds trust among users and stakeholders by demonstrating that the AI
decisions are transparent and justifiable.
Other options, such as credential theft, prompt injections, and social engineering, are
significant concerns but do not directly address the privacy and fairness implications of
automated decision-making.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"The Importance of Explainability in AI," IEEE Xplore
GDPR Article 22, "Automated Individual Decision-Making, Including Profiling"
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